I understand that in California, it's illegal to record a phone call without someone's knowledge. When I call my health insurer, they let me know the call might be recorded, but when I say *I* might record the call, too, they say I can't do that and won't talk to me.
If the insurer notifies me that the call might be recorded, can I interpret that as legal notice to the insurer that I might be recording the call, too, in other words, that all parties know the call might be recorded?
If not, why isn't it reciprocal? It seems to me that ought to just be part of the law, that if one party is recording the call, and makes proper notification, the other party should have the right to record the call without further notification.
And what if I just repeat to the agent who comes on the phone, "This call might be recorded..." and don't specifically state that I want to record the call, or maybe "We both know this call is being recorded, right?" -- is that enough notice to record the call myself?